Week 11

Microbial Genetics (I)

2 sub-topics · Pages 502–530

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1. Introduction

📖 Lecturer's Note

Microbial genetics explores how genetic information is stored, replicated, expressed, and varied in microorganisms. Bacteria replicate their single circular chromosome from a defined origin of replication (oriC) with remarkable accuracy — one error per 10⁹ base pairs after repair. Yet their enormous population sizes and short generation times mean that even rare mutations are rapidly expressed and selected, driving the rapid evolutionary adaptation that underlies antibiotic resistance, host range expansion, and metabolic specialisation.

✏️ Fill in the Blank

1. The segment of DNA that encodes a functional product (protein or structural RNA) is called a _______.

Show Answer Gene

2. The sigma (σ) factor of prokaryotic RNA polymerase recognises specific _______ sequences upstream of genes, directing transcription initiation.

Show Answer Promoter

3. In DNA replication, the enzyme that synthesises short RNA primers needed for DNA polymerase III to start elongation is called _______.

Show Answer Primase

4. A segment of DNA that can move from one location in the genome to another is called a _______.

Show Answer Transposon

🔘 Multiple Choice

1. The enzyme responsible for synthesising a new DNA strand using an existing strand as a template is called:

  • A) RNA polymerase
  • B) Ligase
  • C) DNA polymerase
  • D) Helicase
Show Answer Correct: C) DNA polymerase

2. In prokaryotic DNA replication, which enzyme removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA?

  • A) DNA polymerase III
  • B) DNA polymerase I
  • C) DNA ligase
  • D) Primase
Show Answer Correct: B) DNA polymerase I

3. In prokaryotic transcription, the -10 and -35 consensus sequences of a promoter are recognised by:

  • A) The 30S ribosomal subunit
  • B) The σ (sigma) factor of RNA polymerase
  • C) DNA polymerase I
  • D) The Rho termination factor
Show Answer Correct: B) The σ (sigma) factor of RNA polymerase

4. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotic mRNA is important for:

  • A) RNA polymerase binding to the promoter
  • B) 30S ribosomal subunit binding to position the start codon for translation initiation
  • C) Rho factor recognition for transcription termination
  • D) mRNA degradation by ribonucleases
Show Answer Correct: B) 30S ribosomal subunit binding to position the start codon for translation initiation

5. The genetic code is described as 'degenerate'. This means:

  • A) Most codons encode more than one amino acid
  • B) Most amino acids can be encoded by more than one codon
  • C) Stop codons outnumber sense codons in the genome
  • D) Mutations in the third codon position always change the amino acid
Show Answer Correct: B) Most amino acids can be encoded by more than one codon

6. Which of the following describes the Ames test?

  • A) A test for determining the MIC of antibiotics
  • B) A bacterial reverse mutation assay to screen chemicals for mutagenic potential
  • C) A hybridisation assay to detect specific DNA sequences
  • D) A test for bacterial transformation efficiency
Show Answer Correct: B) A bacterial reverse mutation assay to screen chemicals for mutagenic potential

7. SOS repair in bacteria is induced by:

  • A) High temperature
  • B) Single-stranded DNA accumulation due to extensive DNA damage, which activates RecA
  • C) Oxidative stress on membrane lipids
  • D) Depletion of dNTPs
Show Answer Correct: B) Single-stranded DNA accumulation due to extensive DNA damage, which activates RecA

8. Restriction-modification systems in bacteria function to:

  • A) Regulate transcription of metabolic genes
  • B) Cleave foreign DNA at specific recognition sequences while protecting self-DNA by methylation
  • C) Repair UV-induced pyrimidine dimers
  • D) Control the copy number of plasmids
Show Answer Correct: B) Cleave foreign DNA at specific recognition sequences while protecting self-DNA by methylation

💬 Open-Ended Questions

1. A single base-pair substitution in a gene results in a premature stop codon. Explain the molecular consequences for the protein product and predict how this might affect the bacterium's phenotype if the gene codes for a key metabolic enzyme.

Hint / Guidance Nonsense mutation → premature stop codon → ribosome terminates prematurely → truncated polypeptide lacking C-terminal domain → loss of enzyme active site or structural integrity → enzyme non-functional → metabolic pathway blocked → auxotrophy or inability to catabolise substrate → bacterium outcompeted in mixed culture; if gene essential → lethal mutation. Nonsense-mediated mRNA decay may also degrade the truncated transcript.

2. Explain the SOS response in E. coli. What triggers it, what genes are induced, and what are the consequences for bacterial mutation rate?

Hint / Guidance Trigger: DNA damage (UV, alkylating agents) → single-stranded DNA exposed → RecA binds ssDNA → activated RecA cleaves LexA repressor. LexA normally represses >40 SOS genes including: recA, uvrA-C (nucleotide excision repair), sulA (cell division inhibitor), umuC/umuD (error-prone polymerase V). Consequence: transient cell division arrest (sulA inhibits FtsZ); error-prone repair (DNA pol V inserts random nucleotides across damaged sites — translesion synthesis). Mutation rate 100–1000× elevated during SOS. Adaptive significance: generates diversity for selection, allowing some cells to survive novel challenges; cost: increased mutation rate may generate deleterious mutations.

3. Describe the structural basis of DNA double helix and explain how Watson-Crick base pairing rules ensure accurate replication.

Hint / Guidance Structure: two antiparallel polynucleotide strands; deoxyribose-phosphate backbone outside; nitrogenous bases inside stacking (van der Waals) and hydrogen bonding. Watson-Crick pairing: A-T (2 H-bonds); G-C (3 H-bonds); complementarity ensures each strand is template for the other. Accuracy: DNA pol III base-selects complementary nucleotide via H-bonding geometry (wrong base doesn't fit correctly); 3'→5' exonuclease proofreading removes mismatches (error rate 10⁻⁶→10⁻⁹ with mismatch repair). Higher G-C content → higher Tm (more H-bonds) → thermophile DNA stability partially conferred by elevated G-C content (also reverse gyrase/supercoiling).

4. What is horizontal gene transfer (HGT) and why is it ecologically and medically important? How does it challenge traditional notions of the phylogenetic tree of life?

Hint / Guidance HGT: transfer of genetic material between organisms other than by parent-to-offspring (vertical) transmission. Mechanisms: transformation, transduction, conjugation. Medical importance: spread of antibiotic resistance (R-plasmids), virulence factors (pathogenicity islands), metabolic capabilities. Ecological: Prochlorococcus receives ~20% of genes from HGT; metabolic flexibility of soil bacteria; syntrophic partnerships. Challenge to phylogenetics: different genes in same organism may have different evolutionary histories; genome is mosaic; no single universal 'species tree'; network rather than bifurcating tree of life. 16S rRNA relatively resistant to HGT (due to complex function requiring co-evolution with many partners) so still useful as phylogenetic marker.

5. Explain what a silent (synonymous) mutation is. Why are silent mutations generally neutral, but can sometimes have functional consequences?

Hint / Guidance Silent mutation: nucleotide change in a codon that does not change the amino acid (e.g., GCA→GCG, both Ala; genetic code degeneracy). Generally neutral: protein sequence unchanged; no selective pressure. Sometimes functional: (1) Codon usage bias — rare codons slow ribosome translation; if rate-limiting for protein production, rare codon introduction reduces protein output; (2) mRNA secondary structure — synonymous change alters mRNA folding → affects translation efficiency, stability, co-translational folding; (3) Splicing signals — in eukaryotes, synonymous changes near exon-splicing enhancers can disrupt splicing; (4) Transcription factor binding sites within coding regions can be disrupted. Examples: silent mutation in MDR1 gene changes P-glycoprotein folding; silent SMN1 mutations affect splicing and spinal muscular atrophy severity.

6. Explain the mechanism of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing. How was this system discovered and what are its key molecular components?

Hint / Guidance Discovery: Ishino (1987) noticed repeats; Mojica/Barrangou (2000s) linked to adaptive immunity against phage; Doudna/Charpentier (2012) programmed Cas9 for genome editing (Nobel Prize 2020). Components: Cas9 nuclease (RuvC + HNH domains cut each DNA strand); single guide RNA (sgRNA = crRNA + tracrRNA fusion); 20-nt spacer guides Cas9 to target; PAM sequence (NGG for SpCas9) required adjacent to target. Mechanism: sgRNA:Cas9 complex scans DNA; matches 20-nt target → R-loop formed → HNH cuts strand complementary to sgRNA; RuvC cuts other strand → DSB; repaired by NHEJ (indels, gene KO) or HDR (precise edit with donor template).

7. How does recombinational DNA repair restore double-strand breaks in bacteria? What is the role of RecA in this process?

Hint / Guidance RecBCD pathway (for DSB from collapsed replication forks or DNA damage): (1) RecBCD helicase/nuclease loads at DSB end; unwinds and degrades DNA until it encounters Chi (5'-GCTGGTGG-3') site; (2) At Chi: RecBCD switches from nuclease to recombinase loader; loads RecA onto 3' ssDNA. (3) RecA-ssDNA nucleofilament invades homologous duplex (intact sister chromosome); (4) Branch migration extends heteroduplex; (5) Holliday junction resolved by RuvABC (RuvA stabilises, RuvB drives migration, RuvC cleaves). RecA also activates SOS response (protease activity cleaves LexA repressor). In the absence of a sister chromosome (non-replicating cells), RecA uses template switching.

8. What is the CRISPR-Cas adaptive immune system's natural role in bacteria? How do bacteria acquire new 'memories' (spacers) against phages?

Hint / Guidance Natural function: defence against phage and plasmid invasion. Memory acquisition (adaptation): phage injects DNA; Cas1-Cas2 complex recognises PAM on phage DNA; excises a 30 bp protospacer; integrates it into CRISPR array between first repeat and leader sequence as a new spacer — creates immunological memory. Expression: CRISPR locus transcribed → pre-crRNA → processed into individual crRNAs by Cas6/RNase III. Interference: crRNA loaded into Cas-effector complex (Cas9/Cas12/Cas13); guides complex to matching phage DNA/RNA → cleavage → phage neutralised. Bacterial population evolves rapid new spacers during phage epidemic; phage escapes by mutating protospacer/PAM = co-evolutionary arms race.

2. Flow of Genetic Information

📖 Lecturer's Note

The central dogma (DNA → RNA → Protein) describes the directional flow of genetic information. In prokaryotes, this flow is tightly coupled in space and time: ribosomes begin translating mRNA while the RNA polymerase is still transcribing the gene, a process called co-transcriptional translation. This coupling enables gene expression to respond within seconds to environmental changes — a critical advantage for organisms competing in dynamic environments. It also allows regulatory mechanisms such as attenuation, which monitors translation to control transcription termination.

✏️ Fill in the Blank

1. In DNA, adenine pairs with _______ via two hydrogen bonds, while guanine pairs with cytosine via three hydrogen bonds.

Show Answer Thymine

2. A mutation that changes an amino acid codon to a stop codon, producing a truncated protein, is called a _______ mutation.

Show Answer Nonsense

3. The enzyme that synthesises a new DNA strand using an existing strand as a template is called DNA _______.

Show Answer Polymerase

4. The process by which a bacteriophage integrates its DNA into the host chromosome is called _______.

Show Answer Lysogeny

🔘 Multiple Choice

1. The central dogma of molecular biology describes the flow of genetic information as:

  • A) RNA → DNA → Protein
  • B) DNA → RNA → Protein
  • C) Protein → RNA → DNA
  • D) DNA → Protein → RNA
Show Answer Correct: B) DNA → RNA → Protein

2. An organism's genotype differs from its phenotype in that:

  • A) The genotype is the set of observable traits; the phenotype is the genetic blueprint
  • B) The genotype is the complete genetic information; the phenotype is the observable traits expressed under specific conditions
  • C) Genotype changes during the organism's lifetime; phenotype is fixed
  • D) They are essentially synonymous terms in microbiology
Show Answer Correct: B) The genotype is the complete genetic information; the phenotype is the observable traits expressed under specific conditions

3. A frameshift mutation is caused by:

  • A) Replacement of one nucleotide with another
  • B) Insertion or deletion of a number of nucleotides not divisible by 3, disrupting the reading frame
  • C) Methylation of cytosine residues in a promoter
  • D) Translocation of a gene to a different chromosomal location
Show Answer Correct: B) Insertion or deletion of a number of nucleotides not divisible by 3, disrupting the reading frame

4. Which of the following describes a missense mutation?

  • A) A mutation that changes a codon to a stop codon
  • B) A mutation that changes one amino acid codon to a codon for a different amino acid
  • C) A mutation that changes a codon to the same amino acid (synonymous)
  • D) Deletion of an entire gene from the chromosome
Show Answer Correct: B) A mutation that changes one amino acid codon to a codon for a different amino acid

5. In E. coli, which repair mechanism removes thymine dimers caused by UV irradiation?

  • A) SOS repair (RecA-dependent)
  • B) Methyl-directed mismatch repair
  • C) Nucleotide excision repair (UvrABC system)
  • D) Homologous recombination
Show Answer Correct: C) Nucleotide excision repair (UvrABC system)

6. During bacterial conjugation, which DNA is transferred from donor to recipient?

  • A) Both chromosomal DNA and all plasmids
  • B) Primarily the F plasmid or mobilisable plasmid DNA via a mating bridge (pilus)
  • C) Only chromosomal DNA
  • D) Only RNA
Show Answer Correct: B) Primarily the F plasmid or mobilisable plasmid DNA via a mating bridge (pilus)

7. A point mutation that changes a codon to a stop codon is called a:

  • A) Missense mutation
  • B) Silent mutation
  • C) Nonsense mutation
  • D) Frameshift mutation
Show Answer Correct: C) Nonsense mutation

8. A Hfr (high frequency recombination) strain differs from an F⁺ strain because:

  • A) It has lost the F plasmid completely
  • B) The F factor is integrated into the chromosome, transferring chromosomal genes at high frequency
  • C) It carries multiple antibiotic resistance genes
  • D) It can only donate DNA to Gram-positive bacteria
Show Answer Correct: B) The F factor is integrated into the chromosome, transferring chromosomal genes at high frequency

💬 Open-Ended Questions

1. Describe the process of DNA replication in prokaryotes. Include the roles of helicase, primase, DNA polymerase III, DNA polymerase I, and ligase, and explain why one strand is synthesised continuously while the other is synthesised in fragments.

Hint / Guidance Origin of replication (oriC) unwound by DnaA + helicase (DnaB); SSB proteins stabilise single strands; primase synthesises short RNA primers; DNA pol III (holoenzyme) extends 5'→3': leading strand continuous; lagging strand as Okazaki fragments (100–200 nt). DNA pol I (5'→3' exonuclease activity) removes primers + replaces with DNA. Ligase seals nicks between Okazaki fragments. Anti-parallel template strands force discontinuous synthesis because DNA pol can only extend 3' end.

2. Compare transcription in prokaryotes with eukaryotes. Include at least three differences relevant to gene regulation and mRNA processing.

Hint / Guidance (1) Location: prokaryotes — nucleoid, no nuclear membrane, transcription and translation coupled; eukaryotes — nucleus, separated. (2) RNA processing: prokaryotes — no introns/no splicing, polycistronic mRNA; eukaryotes — pre-mRNA splicing, 5' cap, 3' poly-A tail, monocistronic. (3) RNA polymerase: prokaryotes — single RNA pol (core + σ); eukaryotes — RNA pol I (rRNA), II (mRNA), III (tRNA). (4) Promoters: prokaryotes — -10 and -35 Pribnow box recognised by σ; eukaryotes — TATA box, CAAT box, GC box recognised by TBP/transcription factors.

3. What is the difference between constitutive and regulated gene expression? Describe how operons allow coordinated regulation of metabolic pathways in bacteria.

Hint / Guidance Constitutive: genes expressed continuously regardless of conditions (housekeeping genes, e.g., ribosomal protein genes). Regulated: expression adjusted in response to signals. Operon: group of genes under single promoter + operator (e.g., lac operon): lacZ (β-galactosidase), lacY (permease), lacA (transacetylase). Negative regulation: lac repressor (lacI) binds operator → blocks transcription; allolactose (inducer) binds repressor → conformational change → dissociates from operator → genes transcribed. Positive regulation: catabolite repression (CAP-cAMP); high glucose → low cAMP → no CAP binding → reduced transcription even without repressor. Combined result: lac genes maximally expressed only when lactose present AND glucose absent.

4. Explain how spontaneous mutations arise in bacteria. Describe three sources of spontaneous mutation and their molecular mechanisms.

Hint / Guidance (1) Replication errors: DNA pol III mismatch (tautomeric shifts in bases → transient wrong base pairing) → transition or transversion; rate ~10⁻⁹ per bp per replication after repair. (2) Depurination: spontaneous loss of purine (A or G) from sugar-phosphate backbone → abasic site → if not repaired → random base insertion → transversion mutations; ~5,000 depurination events per cell per day. (3) Cytosine deamination: cytosine → uracil → pairs with adenine → C-G to T-A transition; repaired by uracil DNA glycosylase; evolutionary reason why thymine (methylated uracil) exists in DNA. (4) Reactive oxygen species: oxidative damage → 8-oxoguanine → pairs with adenine → G-C to T-A transversion.

5. Describe the process of transcription in prokaryotes from promoter recognition to termination. Include the roles of sigma factor, core enzyme, and Rho factor.

Hint / Guidance Initiation: σ factor associates with core enzyme (α₂ββ'ω) → holoenzyme; σ₇₀ recognises -35 (TTGACA) and -10 (TATAAT) sequences; DNA unwound forming open complex (~13 bp bubble). Promoter escape: after ~8–10 nt synthesised, σ released; elongation begins. Elongation: RNA pol moves 3'→5' on template, synthesises RNA 5'→3'; non-template strand = coding strand. Termination: (1) Intrinsic/Rho-independent: palindromic G-C rich sequence → hairpin loop in RNA → stalls RNA pol; A-U base pairs weak → transcript released. (2) Rho-dependent: Rho factor (hexameric helicase) binds C-rich rut site on mRNA; translocates 5'→3'; catches paused RNA pol; unwinds RNA:DNA hybrid; releases transcript.

6. What are insertion sequences (IS elements) and transposons? How do they contribute to bacterial genome evolution and the spread of antibiotic resistance?

Hint / Guidance IS elements: simplest transposons; ~1–2 kb; encode only transposase flanked by inverted terminal repeats (ITRs); transpose by cut-and-paste (conservative) or replicative mechanism. Composite transposons: antibiotic resistance genes flanked by two IS elements (e.g., Tn10 = IS10 flanking tetracycline resistance). Complex transposons (class II): Tn3, encode transposase + resolvase + passenger genes. Contribution to evolution: IS insertions disrupt/activate genes; genome rearrangements; new gene combinations. Antibiotic resistance spread: resistance genes captured between IS elements form transposons → inserted into plasmids → conjugation spreads to new hosts (transposon + plasmid = mobile element stack). Class 1 integrons + gene cassettes: VIM metallo-β-lactamase in Pseudomonas.

7. Explain the difference between constitutive and inducible gene expression in bacteria, using the lac operon as a model. Include the roles of the repressor, inducer, and catabolite activator protein (CAP).

Hint / Guidance Constitutive: genes expressed at constant rate regardless of conditions (e.g., housekeeping genes). Inducible (lac operon): default = OFF (LacI repressor binds operator, blocks RNAP). Induction: allolactose (or IPTG) binds LacI → conformational change → repressor dissociates → genes transcribed. Catabolite repression (glucose effect): when glucose high, cAMP low → CAP-cAMP complex cannot form → CAP cannot bind CAP site → low transcription even with lactose. When glucose low: cAMP high → CAP-cAMP binds → bends DNA → recruits RNAP → high expression. Both conditions must be met for maximal induction: (1) lactose present (relieves repressor) + (2) glucose absent (activates CAP). = double control ensuring lac genes only expressed when needed and glucose unavailable.
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